(3) Physician certification and recertification requirements. If the services are subject to physician certification requirements, they must be certified as being medically necessary, and as meeting other applicable requirements, in accordance with subpart B of part 424 of this chapter. (b) Limitations on payment. Payment for medical and other health services is subject

(a) Basis for denial. An HMO or CMP may deny enrollment to an individual who meets the criteria of §417.422 if acceptance would— (1) Cause the number of enrollees who are Medicare or Medicaid beneficiaries to exceed 50 percent of the HMO's or CMP's total enrollment;

The contract must provide that the HMO or CMP agrees to comply with— (a) The requirements for QIO review of services furnished to Medicare enrollees as set forth in subchapter D of this chapter; (b) Sections 1318(a) and (c) of the PHS Act, which pertain to disclosure of certain financial information; (c) Section 1301(c)(8) of the PHS Act, which relates to liability

within the limits established by §§417.534 through 417.548. (b) Except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section, apportionment must be on the same approved basis that is used by the provider for Medicare beneficiaries who are not Medicare enrollees of the HMO or CMP, subject to the conditions and limitations set forth in

(a) Except as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, the total Medicare payment to a hospice for care furnished during a cap period is limited by the hospice cap amount specified in §418.309. (b) Until October 1, 1986, payment to a hospice that began operation before January 1, 1975 is not limited by the amount of the hospice cap

agreement. When there is a change of ownership as specified in paragraph (a) of this section, and this results in a transfer of the liability for prescription drug costs, the existing sponsor agreement is automatically assigned to the new owner. (e) Conditions that apply to assigned agreements. The new owner to whom a sponsor agreement is assigned is subject to all applicable statutes and regulations and to the terms and

days from the date it receives the information. (2) The agency must also promptly notify the Inspector General of the Department of any action it takes on the provider's application for participation in the program. (c) Denial or termination of provider participation. (1) The Medicaid agency may refuse to enter into or renew an agreement with a provider if

§438.10(h)(1) and (2) of this chapter. *   *   *   *   * Need assistance?

(b) Standard: Delivery of services. Services must only be provided under the orders of a qualified and licensed practitioner who is responsible for the care of the patient, acting within his or her scope of practice under State law, and who is authorized by the hospital's medical staff to order the services in accordance with hospital policies and procedures and State laws. (1) All rehabilitation services

the home infusion therapy accrediting organization, the type of suppliers covered by the home infusion therapy accreditation program, and provides at least a 30 day public comment period (beginning on the date of publication). (b) Final notice. The final notice announces CMS decision to approve or deny a national accrediting organization application. The notice specifies the basis for the CMS decision.

employees or through individuals who are under direct contract to furnish these services personally for the facility. Home dialysis means dialysis performed at home by an ESRD patient or caregiver who has completed an appropriate course of training as described in §494.100(a) of this part.

tax found to be due results from a refund of foreign death tax claimed as a credit under section 2014, such tax shall not bear interest for any period before the receipt of the refund, except to the extent that interest was paid by the foreign country on the refund.

) Enrolling an enrolled actuary. (8) Renewing the enrollment of an enrolled actuary. (9) Taking the special enrollment examination to become an enrolled retirement plan agent. (10) Renewing the enrollment of an enrolled retirement plan agent. (11) Taking the registered tax return preparer competency examination. (12) Applying for a

(a) Person. The term person includes an individual, a corporation, a partnership, a trust or estate, a joint-stock company, an association, or a syndicate, group, pool, joint venture, or other unincorporated organization or group. The term also includes a guardian, committee, trustee, executor, administrator, trustee in bankruptcy, receiver, assignee for the benefit of creditors

approach to managing safety risk and assuring the effectiveness of safety risk controls. It includes systematic procedures, practices, and policies for the management of safety risk. Safety objective means a measurable goal or desirable outcome related to safety. Safety performance means realized or actual safety accomplishment relative to the organization's

party seeking judicial review shall file a petition for review with the Court not later than 60 days after the order has been served on the party or within 60 days after the entry of an order under 49 U.S.C. 46110. (b) The following do not constitute final decisions and orders subject to judicial review: (1) An FAA decision to dismiss a

the following probability: (1) Where applied loads are eventually distributed through a single member within an assembly, the failure of which would result in loss of structural integrity of the component, 99 percent probability with 95 percent confidence. (2) For redundant structure, in which the failure of individual elements would result in applied loads being safely distributed to other load carrying members, 90 percent

leakage, and means of detecting leakage. (2) Flammability characteristics of fluids, including effects of any combustible or absorbing materials. (3) Possible ignition sources, including electrical faults, overheating of equipment, and malfunctioning of protective devices. (4) Means available for controlling or extinguishing a fire, such as stopping flow of fluids, shutting down equipment

leakage, and means of detecting leakage. (2) Flammability characteristics of fluids, including effects of any combustible or absorbing materials. (3) Possible ignition sources, including electrical faults, overheating of equipment, and malfunctioning of protective devices. (4) Means available for controlling or extinguishing a fire, such as stopping flow of fluids, shutting down equipment

(3) Contrast in color with the background; and (4) Be legible. (d) The aircraft nationality and registration marks may be affixed to an aircraft with readily removable material if— (1) It is intended for immediate delivery to a foreign purchaser; (2) It is bearing a temporary registration number; or (3

(a) A person who applies for an aircraft dispatcher certificate must pass a knowledge test on the following aeronautical knowledge areas: (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that relate to airline transport pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations; (2) Meteorology, including knowledge of and effects of fronts, frontal characteristics, cloud formations, icing, and

(d) Each pilot in command who (though not deviating from a rule of this subpart) is given priority by ATC in an emergency, shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC. (e) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person operating an aircraft may operate that aircraft according to any clearance or instruction that has been issued to the pilot of another aircraft for radar air

are on duty to schedule and release program aircraft during all hours that such aircraft are available for program operations.

payload, and length of the trailing antenna. (7) The duration of flight. (8) The forecast time and location of impact with the surface of the earth. (b) For solar or cosmic disturbance investigations involving a critical time element, the information in paragraph (a) of this section shall be given within 30 minutes to 24 hours before beginning the operation. (c)

section to any main parachute unless that person is a certificated parachute rigger or that person makes the next parachute jump with that parachute. (c) An assist device is not required for parachute operations using direct-deployed, ram-air parachutes.

, and subpart B of this part also apply to operations of U.S.-registered aircraft operated solely outside the United States in common carriage by a foreign person or foreign air carrier. (c) Definitions. For the purpose of this part— (1) Foreign person means any person who is not a citizen of the United States and who operates a U.S.-registered aircraft in

Federal Register and provide for a 45-day comment period during which interested parties may submit comments to the FAA. The FAA will specifically solicit comments from the affected airport operator and affected local governments. A submission that is not complete will be returned to the aircraft operator with a letter indicating the deficiency, and no notice will be published. No further action will be taken by the FAA until a complete submission is received.

§203.5, shall constitute a special agreement between the carrier and its passengers as a condition of carriage that a liability limit of not less than $75,000 (U.S.) shall apply under Article 22(1) of the Warsaw Convention for passenger injury and death. Such participation also constitutes a waiver of the defense under Article 20(1) of the Convention that the carrier was not negligent.

(a) Registrations. Any air carrier subject to this part that desires to change the name in which its operating authorization has been issued, or to use a trade name, or to obtain initial operating authority must register the name with the Department. The Department will construe any application for initial, reissued, or transferred authority as containing a “registration” of the intended name. A separate name registration

§§222.3, 222.4 and 222.5. (b) A direct foreign air carrier shall be considered to control the surface portion of intermodal cargo services if it has or publicly represents that it has any responsibility for or control over the movement of, or has any ownership, controlling or exclusive dealing relationship with, the carrier actually providing the surface transportation.