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appear where required by part 24 of this chapter, on wines sweetened with sugar in excess of the maximum quantities specified in such regulations. If the class of the wine is not defined in subpart C, a truthful and adequate statement of composition shall appear upon the brand label of the product in lieu of a class designation. In addition to the mandatory designation for the wine, there may be stated a distinctive or fanciful name, or a designation in accordance with trade understanding. The
(a) Name. The name of the viticultural area described in this section is “Shenandoah Valley.”
(b) Approved maps. The appropriate maps for determining the boundaries of the Shenandoah Valley viticultural area are four U.S.G.S. Eastern United States 1:250,000 scale maps. The maps are titled: Roanoke (1971), Charlottesville (1956, with a revision in 1965
(a) Name. The name of the viticultural area described in this section is “Lake Erie.”
(b) Approved maps. The appropriate maps for determining the boundaries of the Lake Erie viticultural area are four U.S.G.S. maps. They are titled:
(1) “Toledo,” scale 1:250,000 (1956, revised 1978);
(2
(a) Name. The name of the viticultural area described in this section is “Mississippi Delta.”
(b) Approved maps. The appropriate maps for determining the boundaries of the Mississippi Delta viticultural area are three U.S.G.S. maps. They are titled:
(1) Helena, scale of 1:250,000, 1955 (revised 1977).
(a) Name. The name of the viticultural area described in this section is “Mt. Veeder.”
(b) Approved Maps. The appropriate maps for determining the boundaries of the “Mt. Veeder” viticultural area are three U.S.G.S. Quadrangle (7.5 Minute Series) maps. They are titled:
(1) Napa, California (1951 (Photorevised (1980))
(a) Name. The name of the viticultural area described in this section is “Benmore Valley.”
(b) Approved Maps. The appropriate maps for determining the boundaries of the Benmore Valley viticultural area are two U.S.G.S. maps. They are entitled:
(1) “Hopland, CA,” 7.5 Minute Series, edition of 1960, (photoinspected 1975); and
of an unnamed peak of 1846 feet elevation, to the 1600 foot contour line in the eastern portion of section 8, T. 6 N., R. 3 W.;
(9) Then following the 1600 foot contour line generally north and west for approximately 10 miles, to the point of intersection with the boundary line between sections 12 and 13, T. 7 N., R. 4 W. on the Yountville U.S.G.S. map;
(10) Then following the section boundary line west approximately 1.1 miles
(a) Name. The name of the viticultural area described in this section is “Mendocino Ridge.”
(b) Approved maps. The appropriate maps for determining the boundary of the Mendocino Ridge viticultural area are four 1:62,500 scale U.S.G.S. topographical maps. They are titled:
(1) Ornbaun Valley Quadrangle, California, 15 minute
Minimum required type size for warning statement
Maximum number of characters per inch
1 millimeter
40
2 millimeters
25
Claimant. The person who held the liquors for sale at the time of the disaster or other specified cause of loss and who files a claim under this subpart.
Commissioner of Customs. The Commissioner of Customs, U.S. Customs Service, the Department of the Treasury, Washington, DC.
Distilled spirits, or
(9) EY—equilibrium yield
(10) FIAC-Fishing industry advisory committee
(11) FMP—fishery management plan
(12) ICCAT means the International Commission for the Conservation of Atlantic Tunas.
(13) JVP—joint venture processing
(14) MSY—maximum sustainable yield
crab from, or carry on board a vessel, up to a total of 600 traps/pots when fishing for, catching, or landing red crab. A vessel owner is required to declare, on the annual permit application, the maximum number of traps/pots used per string and the maximum number of strings employed, such that the product of the maximum number of traps/pots per string and the maximum number of strings declared is no more than 600 traps/pots. The vessel is restricted to the product of the maximum number of traps
ground-fault device protecting the continuous mining machine. Equipment grounding conductors must not pass through the current transformer.
(vii) A test circuit for the ground-fault device must be provided. The test circuit must inject no more than 50 percent of the current rating of the neutral grounding resistor through the current transformer. When the test circuit is activated, the circuit-interrupting device must open.
(3
requirement;
(2) If no inspection was conducted, an explanation of the reason for not inspecting;
(3) A statement as to the person's right to informal review of the actions or inactions of the Office.
(4) The permittee shall receive copies of all such reports which have not already been given to the permittee, except that the name of the complainant shall be removed.
(d
the fill during and after construction, to intercept surface runoff and discharge the runoff through or over the rock drain, if stability of the fill is not impaired. In no case shall this pocket or sump have a potential capacity for impounding more than 10,000 cubic feet of water. Terraces on the fill shall be graded with a 3 to 5 percent grade toward the fill and a 1 percent slope toward the rock core.
[48 FR 32926, July 19, 1983, as amended at 81 FR
and after construction, to intercept surface runoff and discharge the runoff through or over the rock drain, if stability of the fill is not impaired. In no case shall this pocket or sump have a potential capacity for impounding more than 10,000 cubic feet of water. Terraces on the fill shall be graded with a 3 to 5 percent grade toward the fill and a 1 percent slope toward the rock core.
[48 FR 32928, July 19, 1983, as amended at 81 FR 93418, Dec. 20
misconduct.
(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the presiding officer or the Environmental Appeals Board from considering any other factors that in any given case may mitigate or aggravate the offense for which penalties and assessments are imposed.
[53 FR 15182, Apr. 27, 1988, as amended at 57 FR 5327, Feb. 13, 1992]
unit are subject to and operated in compliance with the management requirements of §§61.343 through 61.347; or
(E) A device used to burn off-specification used oil for energy recovery in accordance with 40 CFR part 279, subpart G, provided the purged process fluid is not hazardous waste as defined in 40 CFR part 261.
(c) In situ
-340/1-86-016 (July 1986), p. II-2.
2The subscript “s” denotes each value is for the coating “as supplied” by the manufacturer.
Properties of the coating as supplied1 to the customer:
A. Coating Density: (Dc)
with crushing and screening exhaust gases containing particulate matter in excess of 69 (mg/dscm) (0.03 gr/dscf).
(f) At all times, you must operate and maintain any affected source, including associated air pollution control equipment and monitoring equipment, in a manner consistent with safety and good air pollution control practices for minimizing emissions. Determination of whether such operation and maintenance procedures are being used will be based on
For . . .
You must demonstrate continuous compliance by . . .
1. Each spray dryer stack
a. Maintaining emissions of PM10 at or below 100 lbs/hr; and
b. Maintaining emissions of
boiler is in this subcategory . . .
For the followingpollutants . . .
You must achieve less than or equal to the following emission limits, except during periods of startup and shutdown . . .
1. New coal-fired boilers with heat input capacity of 30 million British thermal units per hour (MMBtu/hr) or greater that do not meet the definition of
As required in §63.11599, you must meet each requirement in the following table that applies to you. Part 63 General Provisions that apply for Paints and Allied Products Manufacturing Area Sources:
Open Table
(a) An accredited third-party certification body must annually, upon FDA request made for cause, or as required under §1.631(f)(1)(i), §1.634(d)(1)(i), or §1.635(c)(1)(i
(d) Exemption from certification. Certification of this color additive is not necessary for the protection of the public health, and therefore, this color additive is exempt from the certification requirements of section 721(c) of the act.
[58 FR 3227, Jan. 8, 1993, as amended at 58 FR 17510, Apr. 5, 1993]
paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be warmed and is subjected to the action of a lactic acid-producing bacterial culture. One or more of the clotting enzymes specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is added to set the dairy ingredients to a semisolid mass. The mass is cut into smaller portions and allowed to stand for a time. The mixed curd and whey is placed into forms permitting further drainage. While being placed in forms, spores of the mold Penicillium
any vinegar diluted with water to an acidity, calculated as acetic acid, of not less than 21⁄2 percent by weight, or any such vinegar or diluted vinegar mixed with an optional acidifying ingredient as specified in paragraph (d)(6) of this section. For the purpose of this paragraph, any blend of two or more vinegars is considered to be a vinegar.
(2) Lemon
their homes and/or use pit privies; or
(3) An appropriate federal agency (such as the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) or regulatory Agency of the State of Alaska determines that the drinking water and/or sewer system does not meet current regulatory requirements.
Grant recipient means an applicant that has been awarded a Rural Alaskan Village Grant under this part.
person licensed to operate the facility, and (ii) the discharge of radioactive effluents from the facility site.
(2) The export from or import into the United States of byproduct, source, or special nuclear material, or of any production or utilization facility.
(3) The disposal into the ocean or sea of byproduct, source, or special nuclear waste materials, as defined in regulations or orders of the Commission. For purposes of this
(a) For each mine rescue team designated to provide mine rescue coverage at an underground coal mine, the mine operator shall send the District Manager an annual statement certifying that each team meets the requirements of this subpart as listed in the following Table 49.50-A and Table 49.50-B.
(b) The operator shall notify the District Manager within 60 days of any change in team membership.